Airport Engineering Online Quiz Questions and Answers pdf

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1. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
a) 78 m
b) 150 m
c) 300 m
d) 450 m
Ans: c

2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Ans: a

3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.3 %
d) 0.4%
Ans: a

4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
a) 1 aircraft per hour
b) 2 aircrafts per hour
c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 16 aircrafts per hour
Ans: c


7. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
a) weather conditions and navigational aids available
b) lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
c) lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
d) lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Ans: d

8. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
a) only clearway
b) only stop way ,
c) either a clearway or a stopway
d) either a clearway or a stopway or both
Ans: d

9. The minimum width of clearway is
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 250 m
Ans: c

10. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
a) 32°C
b) 35.5°C
c) 48°C
d) 25°C
Ans: c


11. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a

12. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
a) 0.10%
b) 0.26%
c) 0.43 %
d) 0.65%
Ans: b

13. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
a) 2500 m
b) 2600 m
c) 2700 m
d) 2800 m
Ans: c

14. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
a) 1500 m and 600 m
b) 2100 m and 750 m
c) 1500 m and 750 m
d) 2100 m and 600 m
Ans: d

15. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
a) equal to empty operating weight
b) equal to maximum landing weight
c) less than empty operating weight
d) equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load.
Ans: d

17. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
a) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
b) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
c) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
d) 500 kmph and 500 kmph
Ans: a

19. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
a) 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph
Ans: c

20. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
a) 4.8 kmph
b) 6.4 kmph
c) 8.0 kmph
d) 9.6 kmph
Ans: b

21. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%
Ans: c

22. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Black
d) Red
Ans: b

23. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
a) 3 m from runway end
b) 6 m from runway end
c) 10 m from runway end
d) 15m from runway end
Ans: b

24. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
a) 3 m and 30 m
b) 4.2 m and 30 m
c) 4.2 m and 50 m
d) 3 m and 45 m
Ans: b

25. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
a) along the extended centre line of runway end
b) about 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
c) at the runway threshold
d) about 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Ans: b

26. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
a) 22.5 m x 22.5 m
b) 30 m x 30 m
c) 22.5 m x 30 m
d) 60 mx 120 m
Ans: d

27. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
a) 2.5 m
b) 5.0 m
c) 7.5 m
d) 10.0 m
Ans: c

28. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
a) 1:2
b) 1:5
c) 1:8
d) 1:40
Ans: c

29. Assertion  A  :  Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a

30. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select   your   answer   based   on   coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: c

31. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
a) 60 m
b) 120 m
c) 180 m
d) 240 m
Ans: c

33. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
a) Zero
b) 300
c) 3000
d) Unrestricted
Ans: b

34. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
a) Alligator cracking
b) Mud pumping
c) Warping cracks
d) Shrinkage cracks
Ans: a

35. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
a) aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
b) hot blast is directed  towards the terminal building
c) overall apron area required is more
d) all the above
Ans: b

36. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
a) Apron
b) Hanger
c) Terminal building
d) holding apron
Ans: b

37. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
a) 1:5
b) 1:7
c) 1:10
d) 1:12
Ans: b

38. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
a) 150 m
b) 300 m
c) 600 m
d) 750 m
Ans: b

39. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 51 m
Ans: b

40. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
a) equal to the maximum structural landing weight
b) less than the maximum structural landing weight
c) more than the maximum structural landing weight
d) equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Ans: c

41. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. runway orientation
2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 alone is correct
Ans: d

42. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3, and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: d

43. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
a) 32
b) 36
c) 44
d) 68
Ans: b

44. Castor angle is defined as the angle
a) formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
b) between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
c) between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
d) between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Ans: a

45. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130m
Ans: c

Airport Engineering MCQs - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

=> Also Read Airport Engineering Lab VIVA Questions

1. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
a) 78 m
b) 150 m
c) 300 m
d) 450 m
Ans: c

2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Ans: a

3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.3 %
d) 0.4%
Ans: a

4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a


5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
a) 1 aircraft per hour
b) 2 aircrafts per hour
c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 16 aircrafts per hour
Ans: c

7. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
a) weather conditions and navigational aids available
b) lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
c) lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
d) lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Ans: d

8. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
a) only clearway
b) only stop way ,
c) either a clearway or a stopway
d) either a clearway or a stopway or both
Ans: d

9. The minimum width of clearway is
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 250 m
Ans: c

10. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
a) 32°C
b) 35.5°C
c) 48°C
d) 25°C
Ans: c


11. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a

12. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
a) 0.10%
b) 0.26%
c) 0.43 %
d) 0.65%
Ans: b

13. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
a) 2500 m
b) 2600 m
c) 2700 m
d) 2800 m
Ans: c

14. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
a) 1500 m and 600 m
b) 2100 m and 750 m
c) 1500 m and 750 m
d) 2100 m and 600 m
Ans: d

15. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
a) equal to empty operating weight
b) equal to maximum landing weight
c) less than empty operating weight
d) equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load.
Ans: d

17. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
a) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
b) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
c) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
d) 500 kmph and 500 kmph
Ans: a

19. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
a) 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph
Ans: c

20. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
a) 4.8 kmph
b) 6.4 kmph
c) 8.0 kmph
d) 9.6 kmph
Ans: b

21. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%
Ans: c

22. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Black
d) Red
Ans: b

23. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
a) 3 m from runway end
b) 6 m from runway end
c) 10 m from runway end
d) 15m from runway end
Ans: b

24. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
a) 3 m and 30 m
b) 4.2 m and 30 m
c) 4.2 m and 50 m
d) 3 m and 45 m
Ans: b

25. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
a) along the extended centre line of runway end
b) about 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
c) at the runway threshold
d) about 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Ans: b

26. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
a) 22.5 m x 22.5 m
b) 30 m x 30 m
c) 22.5 m x 30 m
d) 60 mx 120 m
Ans: d

27. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
a) 2.5 m
b) 5.0 m
c) 7.5 m
d) 10.0 m
Ans: c

28. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
a) 1:2
b) 1:5
c) 1:8
d) 1:40
Ans: c

29. Assertion  A  :  Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a

30. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select   your   answer   based   on   coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: c

31. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
a) 60 m
b) 120 m
c) 180 m
d) 240 m
Ans: c

33. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
a) Zero
b) 300
c) 3000
d) Unrestricted
Ans: b

34. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
a) Alligator cracking
b) Mud pumping
c) Warping cracks
d) Shrinkage cracks
Ans: a

35. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
a) aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
b) hot blast is directed  towards the terminal building
c) overall apron area required is more
d) all the above
Ans: b

36. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
a) Apron
b) Hanger
c) Terminal building
d) holding apron
Ans: b

37. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
a) 1:5
b) 1:7
c) 1:10
d) 1:12
Ans: b

38. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
a) 150 m
b) 300 m
c) 600 m
d) 750 m
Ans: b

39. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 51 m
Ans: b

40. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
a) equal to the maximum structural landing weight
b) less than the maximum structural landing weight
c) more than the maximum structural landing weight
d) equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Ans: c

41. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. runway orientation
2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 alone is correct
Ans: d

42. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3, and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: d

43. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
a) 32
b) 36
c) 44
d) 68
Ans: b

44. Castor angle is defined as the angle
a) formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
b) between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
c) between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
d) between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Ans: a

45. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130m
Ans: c

50 TOP Airport Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf

Real Time Airport Engineering Online Quiz Questions and Answers

=> Also Read Airport Engineering Questions

1. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
a) 78 m
b) 150 m
c) 300 m
d) 450 m
Ans: c

2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
a) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
b) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
c) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
d) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Ans: a

3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
a) 0.1 %
b) 0.2%
c) 0.3 %
d) 0.4%
Ans: a


4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
a) 1 aircraft per hour
b) 2 aircrafts per hour
c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 16 aircrafts per hour
Ans: c

7. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
a) weather conditions and navigational aids available
b) lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
c) lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
d) lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Ans: d

8. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
a) only clearway
b) only stop way ,
c) either a clearway or a stopway
d) either a clearway or a stopway or both
Ans: d


9. The minimum width of clearway is
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 250 m
Ans: c

10. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
a) 32°C
b) 35.5°C
c) 48°C
d) 25°C
Ans: c

11. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a

12. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
a) 0.10%
b) 0.26%
c) 0.43 %
d) 0.65%
Ans: b

13. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
a) 2500 m
b) 2600 m
c) 2700 m
d) 2800 m
Ans: c

14. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
a) 1500 m and 600 m
b) 2100 m and 750 m
c) 1500 m and 750 m
d) 2100 m and 600 m
Ans: d

15. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
a) equal to empty operating weight
b) equal to maximum landing weight
c) less than empty operating weight
d) equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load.
Ans: d

17. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
a) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
b) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
c) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
d) 500 kmph and 500 kmph
Ans: a

19. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
a) 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph
Ans: c

20. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
a) 4.8 kmph
b) 6.4 kmph
c) 8.0 kmph
d) 9.6 kmph
Ans: b

21. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%
Ans: c

22. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Black
d) Red
Ans: b

23. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
a) 3 m from runway end
b) 6 m from runway end
c) 10 m from runway end
d) 15m from runway end
Ans: b

24. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
a) 3 m and 30 m
b) 4.2 m and 30 m
c) 4.2 m and 50 m
d) 3 m and 45 m
Ans: b

25. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
a) along the extended centre line of runway end
b) about 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
c) at the runway threshold
d) about 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Ans: b

26. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
a) 22.5 m x 22.5 m
b) 30 m x 30 m
c) 22.5 m x 30 m
d) 60 mx 120 m
Ans: d

27. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
a) 2.5 m
b) 5.0 m
c) 7.5 m
d) 10.0 m
Ans: c

28. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
a) 1:2
b) 1:5
c) 1:8
d) 1:40
Ans: c

29. Assertion  A  :  Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a

30. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select   your   answer   based   on   coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: c

31. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
a) 60 m
b) 120 m
c) 180 m
d) 240 m
Ans: c

33. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
a) Zero
b) 300
c) 3000
d) Unrestricted
Ans: b

34. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
a) Alligator cracking
b) Mud pumping
c) Warping cracks
d) Shrinkage cracks
Ans: a

35. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
a) aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
b) hot blast is directed  towards the terminal building
c) overall apron area required is more
d) all the above
Ans: b

36. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
a) Apron
b) Hanger
c) Terminal building
d) holding apron
Ans: b

37. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
a) 1:5
b) 1:7
c) 1:10
d) 1:12
Ans: b

38. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
a) 150 m
b) 300 m
c) 600 m
d) 750 m
Ans: b

39. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 51 m
Ans: b

40. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
a) equal to the maximum structural landing weight
b) less than the maximum structural landing weight
c) more than the maximum structural landing weight
d) equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Ans: c

41. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. runway orientation
2. estimating the runway capacity
3. geometric design of holding apron Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 alone is correct
Ans: d

42. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1,3, and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: d

43. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
a) 32
b) 36
c) 44
d) 68
Ans: b

44. Castor angle is defined as the angle
a) formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
b) between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
c) between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
d) between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Ans: a

45. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
c) 3030 m
d) 3130m
Ans: c

Latest Airport Engineering Objective type Questions for freshers

50 TOP Airport Engineering Interview Questions and Answers pdf

=> Also Read Airport Engineering Quiz Questions

1. Why refrigeration is done inside aircraft, and why aircraft body is made of aluminums?
This is the combined effect low pressure & speed of plane in sky. Body of aircraft is made up of aluminums due to its good tensile strength & good conductor.

2. What is ram jet?
It is a jet engine with no moving parts, only fuel spayed and burned.

3. Does not simplification of complex honeycomb designed for thermal protection system of are usable launch vehicles jeopardize the accuracy of results?
It jeopardize the accuracy but it also has some advantages but cannot be used due to its inaccuracy.

4. Are thermal protection systems of space crafts commonly composed of one panel or a collection of smaller tiles?
Thermal protection system of space crafts will be of tiles which are made up of ceramics and ceramic composites to with stand thermal shocks and to avoid cracks it is used as tiles.

5. What is a liquid metal?
Mercury


6. What is the highest temperature the space shuttle undersurface experiences during its mission?

Under surface of the space shuttle will experience above 2300'c at the time of re-entering.

7. Explain how you overcame a major obstacle?
To overcome obstacle, one should have strong determination and self confidence on himself / herself. They have to face life as it comes.

8. What is SPICE? Where was it developed?
The full form of SPICE is Simulation program with integrated circuit emphasis. This is the widely used analog simulator which was developed at electronics research lab of California

University.

9. What are the three tactical elements of electronic warfare?
Electronic warfare has three main elements:
ES - Electronic support - This has high passive acquisition intelligence about friend and foe
EA - Electronic attack - Which has passive and active denial of RF spectrum
EP - Electronic protection protects friendly personnel and assets by active and passive techniques.

10. What is the requirement to become a Professional Engineer (PE) in the field of Aerospace?
Professional Engineer license is required for people who aspire to go in as officially approved engineer. The design specification is done by self employed people or working in
small

business. General aerospace engineers work for government or for big companies and hence few people are not
very keen on becoming PE’s. To become a PE one has to pass an exam on fundamentals of engineering which takes a lot of hours to gruel and work under a licensed PE for about four

years. Also they have to grow through a principle and practice of engineering exam which requires about 8
hours.


11.What are the characteristics that keep solid and fluid different?
When the force is applied tangentially on solid then it experiences a finite deformation and shear stress that is proportional to the deformation. Whereas, when the same shear stress is

applied on the surface of fluid then it experiences continuous increasing deformation where, the shear stress is proportional to the rate of change of deformation.
The fluid dynamic is dividend in three different areas. They are as follows: Hydrodynamics (flow of liquids), Gas dynamics (flow of gases) and Aerodynamics (flow of air). Whereas, the state of,

solid doesn’t represent any of the stages.

12.What are the objectives of Aerodynamics?
Aerodynamics deals with the theory of flow of air and it has many practical applications in engineering. There are some objectives that are being used in aerodynamics and these are as

follows:
It is used to predict the forces, moments and heat transfer from the bodies that is moving through the liquid.
It deals with the movement of wings or use of the wind force. This way it requires the calculations to be done for the aerodynamic heating of the flight vehicles and the hydrodynamic forces

applied on the surface of the vehicle.
It is used to determine the flows that are moving internally through ducts. This way it makes the calculations and measurement of the flow properties that is inside the rocket and jet engines.

13.What are the sources involved in aerodynamics?
There are two sources that are involved in the case of aerodynamics forces and moments that are on the body. These forces are as follows:
Pressure distribution: this is the distribution that is over the body surface
Shear stress distribution: this is the distribution that is over the body surface
These sources are for the body shapes and it doesn’t matter how complex they are. The mechanism that is being used to communicate with the bodies that is moving through a fluid. Both

the pressure (p) and shear stress (?) having the dimension force per unit area. This helps the movement of the body through the fluid.

14.What are the conditions given for the two flows to be dynamically similar?
To measure the dynamicity of the two flows consider two different flow fields over two different bodies. This way the conditions that get generated are as follows:

The streamlined pattern shouldn’t be geometrically similar.
The distribution of the volume over change in volume (V/V8), pressure over change in pressure (p/p8), and time over change in time (T/T8). These changes take place throughout the flow of

the field and they remain the same against the common non-dimensional coordinates
The force coefficient remains the same.
There is a similarity in both the flows like the solid boundaries are geometrically similar for both flows.

15.What are the differences between continuum flow and free molecule flow?
The flow that is moving over the body i.e. in a circular cylinder of diameter d is the continuum flow, whereas the flow that consists of individual molecules moving in random motion is the free

molecule flow.
The mean free path (?) defines the mean distance between the collisions of the molecule and if this path (?) is smaller than the scale of the body measured (d) then the flow of the body is

considered as continuum flow.
The path (?) that is of same order as the body scale then the gas molecules then the body surface will have an impact of the molecules and this is known as free molecular flow.

16.What are the differences between inviscid and viscous flow?
Viscous flow is the flow in which the molecule moves in random fashion and transfers their mass, momentum and energy from one place to another in fluid. Whereas, an inviscid flow is the

flow in which there is no involvement of friction, thermal conduction or diffusion while the molecules are moving.
Inviscid flow consists of the limited influence of friction, thermal conduction and diffusion that is limited to thin region that is limited to the body surface. Whereas, the viscous flows involve the

flows that dominates the aerodynamics of the blunt bodies like cylinder. In this the flow expands around front face of cylinder and it separates from the rear surface of it.

17.What are the differences between incompressible and compressible flows?
Incompressible flows are the flows that have a constant density (?). Whereas, the compressible flows are those that consists of variable densities.
The flows that exist are compressible in nature. Whereas, incompressible flows, doesn’t exist in nature or are very rare.
Incompressible flows are used to model aerodynamic problems without loosing any detrimental accuracy i.e. most problems that exist in hydrodynamics considers the density (?) = constant.

Whereas, compressible flow is hardly used as a mathematical model to, represent the hydrodynamics.
High speed flows are and must be treated as compressible, whereas incompressible flows are not considered for high speed flows.

18.What are the different speed types of flows used in identifying Mach number?
There are four types of flows that consist of different speeds and can be identified using Mach number:
Subsonic flow where M<1 everywhere, this is a field that is defined as subsonic if it matches the Mach number that is less than 1 at every point. These are displayed by smooth streamlines

that consists of no discontinuity in slope. The flow velocity is everywhere less than the speed of sound and the disturbances are all around the flow field.
Transonic flow, where mixed regions exist and M<1 or M>1, this is a flow field that defines that the M8 is increased just above the unity and it is formed in front of the body. These are the

mixed subsonic and supersonic flows that are influenced by both the flows.
Supersonic flow where M>1 everywhere, this type is defined when Mach number is greater than 1 at every point. They are represented by the presence of shock waves across which the

flow properties and streamlines changes discontinuously.
Hypersonic flow where the speed is greater than supersonic, this is defined when the shock waves moves closer to the body surface and the strength of the shockwave increases leading to

higher temperatures between the shock and body surface.

19.What are the major sectors involved in aircraft maintenance?
There are two major sectors involved in aircraft maintenance and these are handled by certifying technician in the field of support and maintenance. These are divided into two sectors as:

Category B1 (mechanical): these are the maintenance technicians that have good knowledge regarding the working of airframe, engine, electrical power systems and equipment. It also

requires additional knowledge of aircraft structures and materials.
Category B2 (avionic): this deals with the integrated knowledge of aircraft equipments, electrical, instrument and radar related systems. They undergo proper training to handle the aircraft

equipments and gain practical experience to deal with day to day activities.

20.What are the operations performed by Category B technicians?
Category B consists of two sectors in the field of maintenance and they are divided in B1 and B2 with certain roles. The operations performed by Category B technicians are as follows:
Activities related to scheduled on field inspections for aircraft maintenance.
Activities of complex rectification
Fault diagnosis on aircraft systems and their equipments.
Modification and performing special instruction to monitor and manage the system
Repairing of airframe and other aircrafts
Activities performed like removal of aircraft components and fitting the required parts.
Use of BITE (built-in test equipment) and diagnostic equipments to perform repair tasks.
Supervising and certifying the work of other technicians involved in it.

21.What is the main source of power in aircraft?
The main source of power is the hydraulic motor that is provided by the scheduled service and involves operations that allow technicians to solve complex system problems. This setup

required certifying the technician to operate all the system the same way as it is been done with one system. The hydraulic motor needs to be operated the same way and maintained in a

proper way. The alignment need to in synchronization with the aircraft auxiliary power unity (APU) before anything is done with the aircraft positioning. A standard need to, be followed to

maintain the aircrafts and its parts equipped and working.

22.What are the differences in the job performed by line maintenance certifying staff and base maintenance certifying staff?
The difference that exists between the two is that line maintenance certifying staff has the responsibility to inspect, rectify and perform the related or associated maintenance activities on the

aircraft on the airfield. Whereas, the base maintenance certifying staff, perform the maintenance activities away from the live aircraft areas.
The maintenance that is being performed by the line maintenance staff is restricted to use limited tools, and equipments that are present on the site to perform the first line diagnostic

maintenance. Whereas, Base maintenance certifying staff is associated with the line maintenance staff as it requires inspecting and performing complex modification in the aircraft carriers.

23.What is the role performed by Category C personnel in maintenance of aircraft?
Category C personnel are responsible for maintaining the management role of controlling the progress of the base maintenance inspections and seeing the work that is getting performed.

These handle the category B and category A staff and monitor their work. They are responsible for ensuring the good work that will be carried out by providing the certification of

maintenance. Category C personnel upon the completion of the maintenance job done by the base maintenance staff provides the certificate to allow the servicing of the aircraft to proceed.

This way the people working in the staff become eligible to perform and provide services for flight.

24.What are the safety recommendations required while maintaining aircraft?
The safety recommendations are required while dealing with the accidents and the inquiry of the aircrafts. The recommendations needed are as follows:
CAA (Civil aviation authority) examines the applicability of self-certification of aircraft engineering and verifies the criticality of the tasks that need to be performed on the system. They also

check the system for further services without doing any functional checks.
Review of the system takes place to interpret the single components of the aircraft that is vital in its design.
Reviewing of the quality assurance system and the reporting methods take place to encourage more better designs to be provided for the use.
Reviewing the need to, introduce a format of job description and grades that is being provided to the engineers and managers.
Providing a mechanism for an independent assessment to carry out the work audit and operations can be performed smoothly.

25.What are the different stress types present in aircraft operations?
Stress is a result that is caused when a solid e.g. metal bar is subjected to an external force. Stress is defined as force per unit area and the basic unit includes MN/m2, N/mm2 and Pa. There

are basically three types of stress:

Tensile stress: it is the stress that is setup when the force tries to pull the material apart.
Compressive stress: it is the stress that is produced by the force that is trying to crush the material.
Shear stress: is the stress that results from the force that tends to cut through the material i.e. tend to put one material slide over another one.

26.Why is strain a major factor in aircraft engineering?
Strain is when a material is altered in shape, this happens due to the fact that the force is acting on the material. The body is strained internally as well as externally without having any

differences of dimension but it just has the differences at the atomic level. It is the ratio of change in dimension over the original dimension. It is very important due to the fact that building an

aircraft requires the knowledge of these factors and the formulas that are associated with it to successfully implementing the parts together. There are three types of strain:

Tensile strain
Compressive strain and
Shear strain

27.What are the different types of modulus involved in mechanics?
Modulus of elasticity is given by the Hooke’s law that states that stress is directly proportional to strain, while the material remains elastic. The external forces that are acting on the material is

just having the sufficient to stretch the atomic bonds this way the material can also return back to the original shape. The different types of modulus are as follows:

Modulus of rigidity: this defines the relationship between the shear stress (t ) and shear strain (? )
Bulk modulus: this defines that if a body volume v is subjected to an increase in an external pressure then the volume will be changed by dV, this deformation will be change in volume not in

shape.

28.What are the mechanical properties required to know before performing maintenance?
The mechanical properties provide the definition of the behavior of the material that is being put under the action of external forces. This is an important aspect to aeronautical engineering

that is also used to gain knowledge for applications developed for aircrafts. This provides an overall view of the structure of the aircraft and the maintenance aspect of it. The properties used

are as follows:

Strength
Stiffness,
Specific strength and stiffness,
Ductility,
Toughness,
Malleability and elasticity

29.Explain in brief about each property used in mechanics?
The properties of the mechanics are as follows:
Strength: this is the applied force on a material that can withstand prior to fracture. It is measured by the proof or yield stress of a material that is under action.
Working stress: this is the stress that is being imposed on a material as a result of the load that is being subjected on the material. The loads that are given must be in the elastic range.
Proof stress: defines the tensile stress
Ultimate tensile stress (UTS): defines of a material that is given by a relationship or its maximum load.
Specific strength: defines the light and strong of a material that is used in aircraft making. This is done to maximize the payload and meeting all the safety requirements.
Malleability: defines the ability to be rolled into sheets or get a shape under pressure. This includes examples of gold, copper and lead.
Elasticity: defines the ability of a material to return to its original shape when an external force is removed from the material.

30.What is the purpose of load extension graphs?
Load extension graphs are used to show the result of mechanical test done on the material to know their certain properties for example finding out the heat treatment of a material. These

graphs shows certain phases of a material when it is being tested for destruction of the properties like elastic range, limit of proportionality, etc. The material needs to obey Hooke’s law. The

elastic limit needs to be at or very near to the limit of proportionality. If the limit is passed the material ceases to be proportional to the load. If the stress increases on the material then the waist

reduces as the stress = force/area. This graph represents a curve that shows different stages like elastic stage, and plastic stage.

31.Why is torsion such an important feature in aircraft engines?
Torsion is used to drive shafts for aircraft engine driven pumps and motors. They are also involved in having a force behind propeller shafts, pulley assemblies and rive couplings for

machinery. The shear stress is setup within the shafts and it results from the torsional loads. The size and the nature of torsional loads and stresses need to be known while making the design

or else premature failure can occur. The shafts are used as a component to transmit torsional loads and twisting moments or torque. They can be a cross section or a circular component as it

is more suitable to transmit the torque for pumps and motors to supply the power to the aircraft system.

32.What is the main function of propulsive thrust?
Propulsive thrust is used in aircraft system, when an aircraft is traveling through air in straight or level flight then the engine produces a thrust that is equal to the air resistance or the drag force

on the aircraft. If the engine thrust exceeds the drag then the aircraft will accelerate and if drag exceeds the engine thrusts then the aircraft system will slow down. The thrust force that is used

for aircraft propulsion should always come from air or gas pressure. The forces that are external always act on the engine or propeller. This propeller can be driven either by a piston or a gas

turbine engine. If there is a use of jet engine then the high velocity exhaust gas is produced.

33.Why is the study of gyroscopes motion required to learn aircraft applications?
Gyroscopic motion is considered as an important study for aircraft application for the inertia and momentum of the body that is used in circular motion. The momentum is the product of the

mass of a body and its velocity. This is a measure of the quantity of motion of a body. Inertia is the force that doesn’t allow any change to happen in momentum. Gyroscope is the rotating

mass that can be moved freely at right angles to its plane of rotation. This utilizes the gyro rotor or gyroscopic inertia to provide the motion unless it is compelled by an external force to change

the state. This uses property of rigidity as gyroscope acts as a reference point in space.

34.What are the laws of gyro-dynamics?
Gyro-dynamics deals with gyroscopic motion that is used for creating aircraft application as it allows inertia and momentum of the body. These laws consist of the two properties of rigidity and

precession to provide the visible effects gyro-dynamics. These are as follows:

If a rotating body is mounted and it is free to move about any axis that passes through the center of mass, then the spin axis that is used will remain fixed in inertial space without displacing

any of the frame.
If a constant torque is applied to any direction such as about an axis, or perpendicular to the axis, then the spin axis will move about an axis that is mutually perpendicular to both the spin and

the torque axis.

35.What is being expressed by Sperry’s rule of precession?
Sperry’s rule of precession describes about the direction in which the precession takes place. This precession is dependent on the direction of rotation for the mass and the axis of the torque

that is applied on the material. It provides a guide to the direction of precession that allows easy finding of the direction of the applied torque. This also helps in finding out the direction of the

rotation of gyro-wheel. If the torque is applied and is perpendicular to the spin axis then it can be transferred as a force.

36.What are the elements required to display oscillatory motion?
The elements required to display oscillatory motion are as follows:
Period: this is related to the time and it signifies the time that elapses in between the motion that will repeat itself after some time again. Oscillatory motions allow themselves to be repeated

after equal intervals of time and this is called as periodic.
Cycle: it represents the completion of one period and it also signifies the motion that is completed in one period.
Frequency: defines the number of cycles completed in unit time.
Amplitude: defines the distance from one point to another or from highest to lowest point of the motion from the central position.

37.What are the different lift augmentation devices present?
Lift augmentation devices provides flaps that are moving wing sections that increase wing camber and provide an angel of attack. Flaps have their own use like if an aircraft takes off and land

in a short distance then the wings of it should produce sufficient lift at lower speed. Flaps provide a way to slow down the aircraft. There two categories and they are as follows:

Trailing edge flaps includes different flaps like
Plain flap that is used to retract the complete section of trailing edge and it is used in downward.
Split flap gets formed by the hinged lower part of trailing edge and the lowered top surface remains unchanged and it eliminates the airflow that occurs over the top of the surface of the plain

flap.
Leading edge flaps: is used to augment the low speed lift that is swept on the wing aircraft. They help in increase the camber and allow the coupling to operate together with the trailing edge

flaps.

38.What are the steps required to solve the problems of aircraft flying high and at very large speed?
There are various steps required to solve the problems of aircraft flying high and at very large speed are as follows:
Build stiff wings that allow and provide the resistance to torsional diversion beyond the maximum speed of the aircraft.
Use two sets of ailerons and one outboard pair that can be operated at low speeds.
Use of one inboard pair that can be used to operate on high speeds, this will have less twisting impact when the ailerons are positioned outboard.
Use spoilers that can be positioned independently or can be paired with ailerons. These reduce the lift on the down going wing by interrupting the airflow over the top surface.

39.What are the functions performed by rudder?
The rudder is involved in providing the movement to the ports that gives a lift force to starboard. This will allow the aircraft to turn and uses the ailerons effectively to bank the aircraft by

minimum use of rudder. The functions performed by rudder are as follows:

It is used with different applications that are involved in taking off and landing to keep aircraft straight.
Providing assistance that is, limited only for the aircraft to turn correctly.
Used in applications during spin to reduce the roll rate of the aircraft and there are some applications that provides low speeds and high angles to allow the raising of the wings.

40.What are the criteria need to be followed for an aircraft to be longitudinal statically stable?
The criteria that are required for an aircraft to be longitudinal statically stable, is:
To have a nose-down pitching disturbance that is used to produce the aerodynamics forces to give a nose-up restoring moment.
This restoring moment that is produced should be large enough to return the aircraft to its original position after the disturbance.
The requirements are met by using the tail-plain that is horizontal stabilizer used to provide the stability to the aircraft.